Whenever religious discussions take place between Catholic and Protestants, the Protestant (when unable to defend his system--which will always happen!) will invariably say: "Well, no man is infallible." This phrase, which CAN NOT be true (as I shall show) is merely a defensive reaction designed to prevent the Protestant from honestly examining his own belief system. This tract will totally destroy this falsehood. The truth will always destroy a lie...if a man will listen with honest intentions.
So that there will be no confusion over this matter, allow me to define the word. INFALLIBILITY means the ability to be free from error in certain statements under certain conditions. The word is properly applied to humans, although sometimes we hear of "infallible" statements or pronounce-ments. In this case even though the word describes the act, it is understood that the character of infallibility is actually meant to apply to the person (or persons) making the statement. So if this expression is used at all it means that those words (in the statement) were made by an infallible person.
Next, in order to avoid confusion, please understand that infallibility has NOTHING WHATSOEVER to do with sinlessness, perfection, or personal virtue. An infallible person may sin exactly as the rest of us do.
Let's now examine this most common expression. If one says: "No man is infallible," one is making what is (at least in form) an infallible statement. Anyone who says that no man is infallible MUST KNOW this to be a fact, without possibility of error. This is to say...with complete certainty. But if it is offered in this fashion, then the person making the statement is presenting himself as being infallible. And this, of course, destroys the basic statement.
Allow me to illustrate this point. I have had many conversations with Protestants in which this silly statement has been offered. I simply ask: "How would YOU know, unless YOU are infallible in YOUR judgments?" No Protestant has been able to answer this question. If YOU are a Protestant, ask yourself why YOU can't answer it (especially when the entire Protestant system is based upon this idiotic premise). If you are a Catholic use this question to expose the basic dishonesty of the Protestant system.
Now, sometimes the Protestant will offer that HIS view (that no man is infallible) is only an opinion i.e., something which he FEELS. But then he cannot offer it as a religious truth, for it is only a tradition and opinion of purely human origin. Such things can NOT be offered as part of Christianity (Matt 15:6). Ironically, Protestants often (dishonestly) attack Catholicism as being based upon "human traditions." But, it necessarily follows that if no man is infallible in a system (so that NO ONE can make error free judgments) then all that is left is error prone human opinion.
And, of course, if Protestants offer this view ONLY as an opinion, then it CAN NOT be part of Christian belief, for Jesus condemned this (Matt 15:8-9; Mk 7:7). So, if it is opinion, then it can't be part of Christian teaching. And if it is offered as a fact, then it can't be true. And what is not true, can NOT be part of true Christianity (but it is part of Protestantism).
Moreover, infallibility is ABSOLUTELY necessary in order for man to know truth. ALL of us know (and know INFALLIBLY) that 2 + 2 = 4. ALL of us know (INFALLIBLY) that Tuesday follows Monday. Truth is of such a nature that it can be known ONLY when it can be stated WITHOUT possibility of error. Otherwise, it is NOT "truth" at all, but only opinion or speculation. Truth is that which is ALWAYS in conformity with reality and this means that it cannot be other than what is. If you know a truth, then you KNOW it, and then you are infallible.
When it comes to cashing our paychecks everyone (including Protestants!) knows precisely, exactly, and infallibly how much currency one will get in return. And if we all can know such things about money, which is actually an impediment to salvation, how could God not give us the same ability when it comes to religious truths? He cannot; He does give man this ability. And this means that infallibility is possible for man.
It was Jesus Himself Who told us that His followers would speak with precisely His authority and that rejection of the words of His followers is precisely the same as the rejection of HIM (Lk 10:16). Now, if these words (spoken by true Christians) are not infallibly and utterly correct, then the words and authority of Jesus does not reside in them and Jesus is not telling the truth. These words (which HIS followers speak) MUST be as free from error as HIS own. So, HIS true followers must not only be infallible, but clearly claim the status.
And in case you haven't noticed, we Catholics do precisely this...while Protestants deny not only the ability, but also deny the very teachings of Jesus Himself.
Recall that Jesus promised that HIS followers would KNOW the truth (Jn 8:32). Knowing truth makes one infallible. But -- much more -- as NONE of us now living have heard these words directly from His mouth, we must have learned this teaching (and all others) from INFALLIBLE sources. Even if one wishes to say that "only the Bible is infallible," this could ONLY be true IF (and ONLY if) the translators were infallible in their translations. If they were not, then we do NOT have the true Bible. If they were, then men are infallible.
As I have shown, the phrase that gives this tract its title, the phrase that Protestants love to repeat, is totally false. Any intelligent person can see this. It is a self-contradiction and anything based upon it is utterly false. And it is one of the foundation stones of the "house divided against itself" which is Protestantism.
If you are a Protestant, think about it. If you are not, thank God, and try to bring these people to a knowledge of truth so that they may be saved...in the ONLY place where salvation is available for man - in the Church of Rome, and in submission to Christ's vicar on earth, the Pope.
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